John 6 and the Eucharist

From Eric Svendsen's book, Evangelical Answers:

Catholics see in this passage [John 6] a direct teaching by Jesus about the Eucharist. They point out that Jesus calls himself the "bread" of life and that the one who "eats" this bread will live forever. They note that in order to have eternal life one must "eat [Jesus’] flesh" and "drink [Jesus’] blood," because Jesus’ flesh is "real" food and his blood is "real" drink.

This is true.

What are we to make of these claims? Is this passage referring to the Eucharist? It must be pointed out at the start that the episode recorded in John 6 happened before the institution of the Eucharist in the other gospels (In fact, John does not record the Last Supper at all in his account). Therefore, none of the original hearers would have understood Jesus to be referring to the Eucharist. Instead, when Jesus did finally speak the eucharistic words "this is my body" the hearers would naturally have recalled Jesus’ words in John 6. The significance of this is that the Eucharist must then be seen as symbolizing Jesus’ teaching in John 6, not the other way around.

Svendsen has entered into this part of his response (to nearly 2000 years of consistent Catholic teaching) with pure speculation. He demands that "the Eucharist must then be seen as symbolizing Jesus' teaching in John 6, not the other way around." Who says either account is symbolizing anything? In John 6 Jesus repeatedly commands that we must eat His Flesh or we have no life in us. This was not symbolic language. It also must be noted that when many of His disciples "turned and walked with Him no more," Jesus didn't "correct" one iota of what He said, or what they interpretted Him as saying. Let's look at what they said and His response to them:
(John 6:52) (6:53) The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying: How can this man give us his flesh to eat?
(John 6:53) (6:54) Then Jesus said to them: Amen, amen, I say unto you: except you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you shall not have life in you.
(John 6:60) (6:61) Many therefore of his disciples, hearing it, said: This saying is hard; and who can hear it?
(John 6:61) (6:62) But Jesus, knowing in himself that his disciples murmured at this, said to them: Doth this scandalize you?
(John 6:66) (6:67) After this, many of his disciples went back and walked no more with him.
(John 6:67) (6:68) Then Jesus said to the twelve: Will you also go away?
(John 6:68) (6:69) And Simon Peter answered him: Lord, to whom shall we go? Thou hast the words of eternal life.
(John 6:69) (6:70) And we have believed and have known that thou art the Christ, the Son of God.
So, Jesus doesn't back down from His original statements and further challenges The Twelve if they too would also leave. With no correction, Peter stands up and says "Lord, to whom shall we go?" Peter was sure of the Lord, and knew that He wouldn't leave those who stayed with Him without the means of fulfilling His command. We call that "having faith." Peter doesn't doubt the words of his Lord - he just accepts them, why can't Svendsen? In fact, Svendsen appears to be making the exact same argument as the "murmuring disciples."

It must also be insisted that this passage is to be interpreted in light of the surrounding context. Jesus had just fed the five thousand (6:5-14). The very next day these same people, remembering what Jesus had done, compare Jesus’ miracle to Moses’ miracle of feeding the Israelites manna ("bread from heaven") for forty years (vv. 30-31), while Jesus had fed them for only a day. Jesus, playing off of the crowd’s comparison, states that he is the true bread from heaven (vv. 32-33). The crowd, still dull in understanding, ask to be given this "true" bread, whereupon Jesus says: "I am the bread of life. He who comes to me will never go hungry, and he who believes in me will never be thirsty" (v. 35).

There is no problem for Catholics to look at the context. The context shows the miraculous feeding of the five thousand from just a few loaves of bread and a few fishes. The Eucharist likewise, takes bread and consecrates it to become the Body of Christ, which is miraculously made present in all the tabernacles of the world - feeding billions of the faithful. Those who partake of This Bread will one day live forever with Him in Paradise - and never hunger or thirst again! This is the message of John 6.

Jesus, of course, is saying nothing new. The same crowd had previously asked him what "work" needed to be done to earn eternal life (v. 28). Jesus, again playing off of their dullness, answers in an ironic fashion: "The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent" (v. 29). In other words, Jesus says: "You want works? Okay, here’s the work God requires—believe!" Jesus takes this same ironic tone with those in the crowd when answering their question about Moses’ provision of bread for forty years. Bread was considered a staple (as it is today), and Moses’ provision of "bread from heaven" meant that Moses provided that which was necessary to sustain life. Jesus picks up on that idea and says in essence: "You think Moses provided you with the necessities of life? He provided the sustenance for mere physical life. I will provide you with all the necessities to sustain eternal life!" Jesus uses the analogy of bread only because that is what the crowd was interested in at that moment.

EXACTLY! As I said above, this Bread that Jesus would provide them with would be the Bread of Life which, if they faithfully partake of it, will one day be in Heaven and will never again hunger or thirst.

That this is Jesus’ intent is clear from other passages in this same chapter. In the midst of the bread discourse Jesus affirms: "I am the bread of life. He who comes to me will never go hungry, and he who believes in me will never be thirsty" (v. 35) There can be no doubt that what Jesus meant by "eating" and "drinking" him was to come to him and to believe in him. This is further evident from v. 47: "I tell you the truth, he who believes has everlasting life," which is immediately followed by:

I am the bread of life. Your forefathers ate the manna in the desert, yet they died. But here is the bread that comes down from heaven, which a man may eat and not die (vv. 48-50).

Again, Jesus equates the "eating" of him to believing in him. This belief results in eternal life:

For my Father’s will is that everyone who looks to the Son and believes in him [notice, this time not "eats" and "drinks" him] shall have eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day (v. 40).

Elsewhere in this passage Jesus states the same truth, but uses the analogy of bread—the sustenance of life:

I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever (v. 51). . . . I tell you the truth, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day. For my flesh is real food and my blood is real drink (vv. 53-55).

Jesus’ point is that, just as physical bread sustains physical life by physically eating it, so Jesus is the heavenly bread that sustains spiritual life by spiritually "eating" him (i.e., believing in him). Physical food is no more in view here than is physical life.

Jesus commands, several times, that we must "eat His Flesh..." why is it that Svendsen (and Protestantism in general) can't accept this? What we're seeing here is merely an attempt to rationalize one's way out of the Truth. Next Svendsen attempts to use St. Augustine, but does so out of the context of ALL of what the great saint and doctor of the Catholic Church has written...
Augustine himself noted this when commenting on this passage:

If the sentence is one of command, either forbidding a crime or vice, or enjoining an act of prudence or benevolence, it is not figurative. If, however, it seems to enjoin a crime or vice, or to forbid an act of prudence or benevolence, it is figurative. "Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man," says Christ, "and drink His blood, ye have no life in you." This seems to enjoin a crime or a vice; it is therefore a figure, enjoining that we should have a share in the sufferings of our Lord, and that we should retain a sweet and profitable memory of the fact that His flesh was wounded and crucified for us (Augustine, On Christian Doctrine III.16.24).

Augustine’s view of this passage parallels the Evangelical view. To interpret it otherwise destroys the physical/spiritual contrast, reduces a life-giving, personal relationship to a mere physical consumption of food, and makes no sense at all of the text.

The text that Svendsen pulls out here takes nothing away from the Catholic understanding of Jesus' words and teaching that the Eucharist is really and truly His Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity. In fact, let's look at a couple other citations from the great Catholic Saint, St. Augustine:
"That Bread which you see on the altar, having been sanctified by the word of God IS THE BODY OF CHRIST. That chalice, or rather, what is in that chalice, having been sanctified by the word of God, IS THE BLOOD OF CHRIST. Through that bread and wine the Lord Christ willed to commend HIS BODY AND BLOOD, WHICH HE POURED OUT FOR US UNTO THE FORGIVENESS OF SINS." (St. Augustine, Sermons 227)

"The Lord Jesus wanted those whose eyes were held lest they should recognize him, to recognize Him in the breaking of the bread [Luke 24:16,30-35]. The faithful know what I am saying. They know Christ in the breaking of the bread. For not all bread, but only that which receives the blessing of Christ, BECOMES CHRIST'S BODY." (St. Augustine, Sermons 234:2)

"What you see is the bread and the chalice; that is what your own eyes report to you. But what your faith obliges you to accept is that THE BREAD IS THE BODY OF CHRIST AND THE CHALICE [WINE] THE BLOOD OF CHRIST." (St. Augustine, Sermons 272)

"How this ['And he was carried in his own hands'] should be understood literally of David, we cannot discover; but we can discover how it is meant of Christ. FOR CHRIST WAS CARRIED IN HIS OWN HANDS, WHEN, REFERRING TO HIS OWN BODY, HE SAID: 'THIS IS MY BODY.' FOR HE CARRIED THAT BODY IN HIS HANDS." (St. Augustine, Psalms 33:1:10)

And what does St. Augustine have to say about the priest and the Mass?
"Christ is both the Priest, OFFERING Himself, and Himself the Victim. He willed that the SACRAMENTAL SIGN of this should be the daily Sacrifice of the Church, who, since the Church is His body and He the Head, learns to OFFER herself through Him." (St. Augustine, City of God 10:20) "By those sacrifices of the Old Law, this one Sacrifice is signified, in which there is a true remission of sins; but not only is no one forbidden to take as food the Blood of this Sacrifice, rather, all who wish to possess life are exhorted to drink thereof." (St. Augustine, Questions on the Heptateuch 3:57)

"...I turn to Christ, because it is He whom I seek here; and I discover how the earth is adored without impiety, how without impiety the footstool of His feet is adored. For He received earth from earth; because flesh is from the earth, and He took flesh from the flesh of Mary. He walked here in the same flesh, AND GAVE US THE SAME FLESH TO BE EATEN UNTO SALVATION. BUT NO ONE EATS THAT FLESH UNLESS FIRST HE ADORES IT; and thus it is discovered how such a footstool of the Lord's feet is adored; AND NOT ONLY DO WE NOT SIN BY ADORING, WE DO SIN BY NOT ADORING." (St. Augustine, Psalms 98:9)

The more one reads of St. Augustine, the more one realizes just how Catholic he truly was. For those above quotes and more, see: http://www.americancatholictruthsociety.com/articles/augustinecatholic.htm.
I always find it interesting that so many Protestants cling to St. Augustine, but if they really looked at his teachings I don't see how they could - and remain Protestant. Just considering the fact that he's called a "Doctor" of the Catholic Faith, I mean, if Catholics have recognized him as such - how can Protestants, especially those who are against Catholicism, accept St. Augustine as anything but a faithful Catholic? Some try to argue, "he was catholic, with a small "c," but such a statement is from ignorance - especially if one looks at the above quotes - and the link provided to even more quotes. So, for Svendsen to say "Augustine's view of this passage parallels the Evangelical view" is simply not true.

Another example of this kind of metaphor is found in John 4, where Jesus is met at the well by a Samaritan woman. After some preliminary conversation Jesus says:

"If you knew the gift of God and who it is that asks you for a drink, you would have asked him and he would have given you living water." "Sir," the woman said, "you have nothing to draw with and the well is deep. Where can you get this living water? Are you greater than our father Jacob, who gave us the well and drank from it himself, as did also his sons and his flocks and herds?" Jesus answered, "Everyone who drinks this water will be thirsty again, but whoever drinks the water I give him will never thirst. Indeed, the water I give him will become in him a spring of water welling up to eternal life." The woman said to him, "Sir, give me this water so that I won’t get thirsty and have to keep coming here to draw water" (John 4:10-15).

This passage has many remarkable similarities to the John 6 passage. In John 6, Jesus picks up on the crowd’s interest in bread: in John 4, Jesus picks up on the woman’s interest in water. In both cases eternal life is in view. In both cases a metaphor of consumption is used to illustrate belief in Jesus. In both cases Jesus’ audience mistakenly takes the metaphor literally. In John 4, Jesus makes no attempt to clear up the woman’s confusion (i.e., he did not expressly state that drinking "living water" means to believe in him and have eternal life). In John 6, Jesus makes at least some attempt to explain what his metaphor means (Contra Keating [Catholicism and Fundamentalism] who thinks there was no attempt by Jesus to clarify that he was not speaking of literal bread). Keating asks, "If they had [been confused], why no corrections?" (233). But Keating ignores the fact that neither were there corrections by Jesus to the woman at the well in John 4. Yet, are we to take Jesus’ words there literally? In both cases Jesus’ audience compares him to one of the Old Testament patriarchs (John 4—Jacob; John 6—Moses).

Since Jesus is obviously speaking of the same thing in both passages (eternal life), the question must be asked: If the Catholic church insists on viewing Jesus’ words in John 6 literally (so that we must literally eat bread to gain eternal life), why does that same Catholic church not teach that we must drink physical water to gain eternal life per John 4? Why understand the "eating and drinking" in John 6 as literal, physical eating, and not understand the "drinking" in John 4 as a literal, physical drinking? Conversely, if one understands John 4 symbolically, then one has no basis for rejecting the symbolic understanding of John 6.

The purpose in John 4 and the Samaritan woman at the well was not Eucharistic in nature, it was about revealling the Messiah - if one looks at the context. Yes, the subject of "thirsting no more" is raised - but that's not the main thrust of John 4. Svendsen also states that because Jesus is clearly speaking figuratively in John 4, "one has no basis fro rejecting the symbolic understanding of John 6." Well, I beg to differ - the language Jesus used in John 6 is quite different from that in John 4. In John 6, Jesus is not just talking to a woman at a well in casual conversation - rather He is "preaching" and "teaching" to a multitude, largely composed of those called His "disciples." To say one has "no basis for rejecting the symbolic understanding of John 6" is simply not true.

Even if one chooses to ignore the above argument, a few other observations must be pointed out. First, there are two Greek words used for "eating" in John 6: esthiô (ejsqivw) and trôgô (trwvgw). Catholic apologists point out that the latter (trôgô) means to "gnaw" or "munch." Their point for doing so is to suggest that this must be a physical eating, otherwise esthiô would have been used throughout. But this is mere conjecture. Jesus obviously uses these terms interchangeably (since he uses each one independently to make the same point). Moreover, esthiô is used in all of the Last Supper passages ("take and eat, this is my body"), not trôgô. For Catholic apologists to make the point that a different word is used in John 6 than is used in any of the Last Supper passages seems to be a strike against their position, not for it; for if a different word is used, then it is likely that a different point is being made in each case.

Second, the Greek word used in John 6 to designate that which we are to eat is sarx (savrx; translated "flesh"), while the Greek word used in the Last Supper texts is always sôma (sw'ma; translated "body"). The differences between these words suggests that if a connection between John 6 and the Eucharist is made, it must at best be a loose one. This fits well with the symbolic understanding of John 6.

Again, Svendsen relies solely on speculation and rationlization of what these words might mean in the context of the Greek. The Catholic position is just as plausible, if not moreso, so Svendsen doesn't really gain any ground here - it just seems like "fluff" to impress someone by throwing in the Greek here. Again, the Catholic presentations that Svendsen himself has presented are at least as plausible as his counter arguments.

(In a recent internet debate, Catholic apologist David Palm asserts that trôgô is never used symbolically in the New Testament. But this is simply not the case. The only other time this word is used in John it is clearly in a symbolic sense: "He who shares [trôgô] my bread has lifted up his heel against me" (John 13:18). This is a quotation by Jesus of Ps 41:9 to show that Judas’ betrayal fulfills the Scriptures. The phrase "he who eats my bread" is no more "literal" than that Judas literally "lifted up his heel" against Jesus. The former symbolizes that the betrayer would be an intimate friend, while the latter symbolizes the betrayal itself).

Well, even here - the understanding of trôgô is still literal for Jesus is referring to the one who would eat of the bread with Him would reveal the one who would betray Him (lifted up his heel against Me). So the eating/gnawing of the bread is a literal use of the word trôgô. So Svendsen's contention here is simply not true.

Third, if one insists that John 6 is a reference to the Eucharist, then the inescapable conclusion according to this passage is that anyone who does not partake of the Eucharist does not have eternal life. Christ states unequivocally that "unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you" (John 6:53). Clearly, if this is a reference to the Eucharist, then no Evangelical has eternal life. Catholic apologists do not want to take Jesus’ statement to its logical conclusion. They believe that Evangelicals can and do have eternal life without partaking of the Catholic Eucharist. Yet, Jesus’ words could not be clearer. Catholic apologists want to have their eucharistic cake and eat it too; but they cannot. Either Jesus is not referring to the Catholic Eucharist in this passage and Evangelicals can have eternal life; or Jesus is referring to the Catholic Eucharist and Evangelicals cannot have eternal life. The latter proposition contradicts the Catholic Catechism, which refers to Protestants as "separated brethren" whose churches are a "means of salvation" (Catechism, Art. 818-819). The Catholic apologist will have to decide whether he believes Jesus’ clear statement in John 6, or the official teaching of Rome. They cannot both be true.

E.S. 

Well, first let's look at what the Catechism says in those references:
CCC 818. "'However, one cannot charge with the sin of the separation those who at present are born into these communities (that resulted from such separation) and in them are brought up in the faith of Christ, and the Catholic Church accepts them with respect and affection as brothers .... All who have been justified by faith in Baptism are incorporated into Christ; they therefore have a right to be called Christians, and with good reason are accepted as brothers in the Lord by the children of the Catholic Church.'[UR 3 # 1.]"

CCC 819. "'Furthermore, many elements of sanctification and of truth'[LG 8 # 2.] are found outside the visible confines of the Catholic Church: 'the written Word of God; the life of grace; faith, hope, and charity, with the other interior gifts of the Holy Spirit, as well as visible elements.'[UR 3 # 2; cf. LG 15.] Christ's Spirit uses these Churches and ecclesial communities as means of salvation, whose power derives from the fullness of grace and truth that Christ has entrusted to the Catholic Church. All these blessings come from Christ and lead to him,[Cf. UR 3.] and are in themselves calls to 'Catholic unity.'[Cf. LG 8.]"

The problem here is, again, a matter of context. One cannot take a couple passages from the Catechism - or even other infallible statements of the dogma of Extra Ecclesiam Nulla Salus (EENS - Outside the Church there is No Salvation) - outside the context of ALL Catholic teaching. No Church teaching is to be taken in a vacuum outside of the rest of Church teaching. Hence, we cannot look at CCC 818-819 without looking at CCC 1790-1793:
1790. "A human being must always obey the certain judgment of his conscience. If he were deliberately to act against it, he would condemn himself. Yet it can happen that moral conscience remains in ignorance and makes erroneous judgments about acts to be performed or already committed."

1791. "This ignorance can often be imputed to personal responsibility. This is the case when a man 'takes little trouble to find out what is true and good, or when conscience is by degrees almost blinded through the habit of committing sin.'[GS 16.] In such cases, the person is culpable for the evil he commits."

1792. "Ignorance of Christ and his Gospel, bad example given by others, enslavement to one's passions, assertion of a mistaken notion of autonomy of conscience, rejection of the Church's authority and her teaching, lack of conversion and of charity: these can be at the source of errors of judgment in moral conduct. "

1793. "If - on the contrary - the ignorance is invincible, or the moral subject is not responsible for his erroneous judgment, the evil committed by the person cannot be imputed to him. It remains no less an evil, a privation, a disorder. One must therefore work to correct the errors of moral conscience."

The Council of Trent says:
This translation however cannot, since promulgation of the Gospel, be effected except through the laver of regeneration or its desire, as it is written:
Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
[Trent Session 6.4]
So, first off - the Catholic Church recognizes most "Evangelical baptisms" as valid (Catholic) baptisms, so the "initiation" into the Church is valid. Secondly, Trent also mentions "or its desire" so if one desires to do as Christ commanded, then if for some reason they are not baptized. In Catholic teaching we also have the teaching of Invincible Ignorance, which shortly stated is (as in the Catechism above in CCC 1793) one who "through no fault of their own" may not be culpable:
CCC 847 This affirmation is not aimed at those who, through no fault of their own, do not know Christ and his Church: Those who, through no fault of their own, do not know the Gospel of Christ or his Church, but who nevertheless seek God with a sincere heart, and, moved by grace, try in their actions to do his will as they know it through the dictates of their conscience - those too may achieve eternal salvation.[LG 16; cf. DS 3866-3872]
There is no guarantee here, the Final Judgment is left for God to decide and "judge" the person's culpability/vincibility. The Church makes no definitive claim that any in this circumstance absolutely will be saved. That's the flaw in most Protestant arguments which try to point to an inconsistency here - they assume that because this teaching exists, that it is then contradictory - but all its saying is that this decision is left to God's Sovereign decision. The documents that teach EENS are directed to heretics that have willfully left the Church and/or infidels and pagans that willfully remain outside the Church. They are generally written at a time prior to the Protestant revolt, so to compare such teachings to Evangelical Protestantism and/or Protestantism in general (as Svendsen has done) is a bit anachronistic, to say the least.

So, in conclusion we must challenge Svendsen (and anyone else who makes similar challenges) to not merely pick and choose which Catholic teachings they wish to argue against if there are other Catholic teachings that balance out the Catholic position. IF these other teachings did not exist, then - and only then - would Svendsen's point be valid.

May God richly bless all who have read this, and may they come to a fuller knowledge of the Catholic Church and be fully united to her, if they aren't already.

In JMJ,
Scott Windsor<<<

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